Veterinary Pharmacology Question Bank 2


1. The antibiotic with high degree of photosensitivity is
a. tetracycline b. gentamicin c. ampicillin d. ceftizoxime

2. Drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
a. ceftriaxone b. vancomycin c. piperacillin d. amoxicillin

3. Mechanism of action of aspirin is by inhibiting
a. Thromboxane A2 synthase b. Phosphodiesterase
c. hmG- CoA reductase d. phospholipase A2

4. Lignocaine acts by
a. blocking sodium channel b. Inhibiting magnesium channel
c. stimulating sodium channel d. blocking calcium channel

5. ‘Grey baby syndrome’ is the adverse effect of
a. chloramphenicol b. cycloserine c. kanamycin d. oxytetracycline

6. Cefixime is classified under
a. Second generation short acting cephalosporins
b. Third generation long acting cephalosporins
c. Second generation parenteral cephalosporins
d. Fourth generation parenteral cephalosporins

7. Drug of choice for trichomoniasis in cattle
a. ampicillin b. metronidazole c. ciprofloxacin d. oxytetracycline

8. Which of the following is a prodrug?
a. enalapril b. dopamine c. ampicillin d. prednisolone

9. Point out the wrong statement, with regard to the action of insulin
a. In liver, insulin increases glycogenesis
b. It is a polypeptide hormone with A and B chains
c. its action is anabolic and increases glucose storage.
d. It facilitates glucose entry into red blood cells

10. Antagonist of warfarin is
a. protamine sulfate b. clopidogrel c. phytomenadione d. ethamsylate

11. Drug used in the therapeutic management of benign prostatic hyperplasia in geriatric
dogs is 53
a. nifedipine b. clonidine c. glycopyrrolate d. finasteride

12. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause systemic alkalosis?
a. sodium bicarbonate b. methylcellulose
c.sodium phosphate d.castor oil

13.Drug which exerts anti-peptic ulcer effects through inhibition of proton pump
a.sucralfate b.ranitidine c.lansoprazole d.misoprostol

14. A laxative which promotes defecation without increasing peristalsis is:
a. castor oil b. docusate sodium c.phenolphthalein d.cascara

15. The drug of choice against Ehrlichia canis organism is
a.ciprofloxacin b. azithromycin. c. doxycycline d. lincomycin

16. The prophylactic agent effective against ‘avian influenza’ virus is
a. indinavir b. nevirapine c. oseltamivir d. saquinavir

17. The most sensitive species of animal for monensin sodium toxicity is
a. bovines b. equines c. poultry d. Porcines

18. The antitrematodal anthelmintic among these is
a. praziquantel b. closantel c. pyrantel pamoate d. Fenbendazole

19. Stanozolol is
a. haemostatic b. An antiemetic c. An appetite stimulant d. Diuretic

20. One of the following statement is true with reference to effects of dexamethasone
sodium phosphate in animals ?
a. decreased gluconeogenesis and reduced lipolysis
b inhibit the activity of kinins and bacterial endotoxins
c stimulate bone formation by stimulating osteoblast proliferation
d. increased protein synthesis

21. One of the following statements is correct with respect to action of antibiotics on
bacterial protein synthesis
a. chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase
b. streptomycin inhibits transpeptidation
c. erythromycin inhibits 30S ribosomal activity
d. lincomycin inhibits the formation of initiation complex

22. Point out the correct one , with relation to their pharmacological properties
a. ceftriaxone : concentration dependent antibiotic b. glipizide : hyperglycaemic
c. tetracyclines : milk residue d. dinoprost : luteotrophic

23. The antibacterial agent effective against Mycobacterium bovis is
a. streptomycin b. tinidazole c. tylosin d. tiamulin 54

24. Nosocomial infections are
a. physician induced b. hospital acquired
c. genetically acquired d. drug overdosage related

25. Concurrent administration of Fluoroquinolones may reduce the hepatic clearance of
a. NSAIDS b. methylxanthines c.penicillins d. antispasmodics

26. The purpose of using clavulanic acid in combination with amoxicillin is to
a. delay the excretion of amoxicliin b. inhibit the beta lactamase
c. enhance the spectrum of clavulanic acid d. to delay the absorption of amoxicillin

27. The agent used for dealying the excretion of ampicillin is
a. probenecid b. diaminopyrimidine c. sulbactam d. tazobactam

28. The antithielerial compound among these is
a. suramin b. quinapyramine sulphate c. halofuginine lactate d. trypan blue

29. The mechanism of bacterial resistance of removing the antibiotic from its site of action
before it can act is by
a. enzymatic degradation b. active efflux pupmps
c. changing the metabolic pathway d. development of mutation

30. The compounds derived from chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium plant have
a. anticancerous property b. antinematodal action
c. antidiarrhoeal action d. ectoparasiticidal action

31. The agent used as growth promoter in pigs is
a. nitrofurantoin b. carbadox c. novobiocin d. Erythromycin

32. Sequential double blockade’ is the term associated with the action of
a. cyclophosphamide b. chlortetracycline c. Sulphamethoxazole d. quinapyramine

33. One of these agents is nonteratogenic and nonabortifacient
a. fenbendazole b. tamoxifen citrate c. cloprostenol d. albendazole

34. Point out the correct statement
a. chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial 30 S ribosomal subunit
b. d-cycloserine inhibits bacterial cell wall transpeptidation
c. kanamycin is a concentration dependent antibiotic
d. the antibacterial spectrum of gentamicin is : broad spectrum anaerobic

35. Amitraz is classified under
a.organochlorines b.organophosphates c. pyretrhroids d. formamidines

36. The clinical indication of medroxy progesterone acetate in bitches is for
a. mismating b.induction of oestrus
c. postponement of oestrus d. delayed ovulation55

37. The base used in the oxytetracycline dihydrate salt injectable solution is
a. propylene glycol b. sodium bisulphite
c. polyvinylpyrrolidone d. chlorcresol

38. Point out the correct statement
a. taxol acts on M phase of cell cycle
b. vincristin acts on G1 phase of cell cycle
c. diaminopyrimidines stimulate dihydrofolate reductase
d. tacrolimus is a immunostimulant

39. The antimicrobial agent effective aginst toxoplasma organism is
a. clarithromycin b. Norfloxacin c. doxycyline d. primaquine

40. Which one of the following statement is correct with reference to amikacin?
a. It is an aminocyclitol
b. It is ineffective against Pesudomonas aeruginosa
c. It is a semisynthetic derivative of kanamycin
d. It is effective against gram negative anaerobes

41. An example for synergistic antibacterial combination is
a. chloramphenicol + ampicillin b. tetracycline + fluororquinolone
c. tylosin + lincomycin d. cefazolin + gentamicin

42. The synthetic PGF2α analoge used for the luteolytic property in cattle is
a. buserelin b. dinoprost tromethamine c. hexestrol d. cloprostenol

43. The drug of choice for nasal schistosomiasis in cattle is
a. carbontetrachloride b. praziquantel c. levamisole d. Diethylcarbamazine

44. Long term therapy of enrofloxacin in adult cats result in
a. liver failure b. lameness c. gastroenteritis d. Blindness

45. The usage of broad spectrum antibacterials may result in
a. super infections b. iatrogenic infections
c. nosocomial infections d. subclinical infections

46. The cholinomimetic alkaloid used for its anticestodal action is
a. pilocarpine b. muscarine c. arecholine d. neostigmine

47. Selective cyclooxygenase 3 inhibitor among these is
a. meloxicam b. aspirin c. acetaminophen d. phenyl butazone

48. Chance of gastrointestinal ulcer formation will be more with the inhibition of
a. lipooxygenase b. cycloxygenase 1 c. cyclooxygenase 2 d. cyclooxygenase 3

49. Lisinopril acts by
a. antagonizing calcium channels b. antagonizing potassium channels 56
c. inhibiting angiotensin II formation d. inhibiting angiotensin III formation

50. The diuretic preferred for reducing the intra cranial pressure is
a. frusemide b. ethacrynic acid c. acetazolamide d. mannitol

51. An example for an agent which cause relaxation of uterus is
a. Oxytocin b. Tiaprost c. isoxsuprine d. phenoxybenzamine

52. The appetite stimulant used in cats , with the antiserotonergic properties is
a. thiamine HCl b. stanozolol
c. medroxyprogesterone d. cyprohepatdine HCl

53. Neostigmine is indicated in
a. ruminal atony b. diarrhoea c. Bronchoconstriction d. miosis

54. The most important adverse effect of pefloxacin in young dogs is
a. bone marrow depression b. chondrotoxicity c. anaphylaxis d. ototoxicity

55 . One of the following is a non sedative antihistaminic
a. terbinafine b. terfenadine c. hydroxyzine d. buclizine

56. The auto inhibitory receptors regulating the acetyl choline release in neuroeffector
junction of parasympathetic nervous system are
a. M 1 b. M 2 c. Nn d. M 3

57 .The vasodilatation effect of cholinergic agonists is due to
a. nitrous oxide b. nitric oxide c. cAMP d. reflex tachycardia

58. An example for the dopamine agonist is
a. domperidone b. droperidol c. bromocriptine d. acepromazine

59. The drug used for the prevention and treatment of gastrointestinal ulcers among these is
a. terfenadine b. nizatidine c. azatadine d. sodium carbonate

60. The parasympatholytic agent used for the opthalmological examinations is
a. pilocarpine b. scopalamine c. cyclopentolate d. ephedrine

61. The action of cardiac glycosides is to
a. inhibit Na
+ K
+ ATPase b. Inhibit H+ K
+ ATPase
c. stimulate H+ K
+ ATPase d. stimulate Na+ K
+ ATPase

62. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug used for skeletal muscle relaxation is
a. d-tubocurarine b. suxamethonium c. vancuronium d. gallamine

63. The effect of dobutamine on heart is
a. increased force of contraction b. increased heart rate
c. increased conduction of impulses d. decreased conduction of impulses

64. Protamine sulphate is a
a. warfarin antagonist b. heparin antagonist 57
c. fibrinolytic agent d. Antiplatelet drug

65. The pharmacological effect of acetaminophen is
a. PG synthesis b. analgesic c. anti-inflammatory d. Antiplatelet

66. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor among these is
a. salbutamol b. theophylline c. isoxsuprine d. terbutaline

67. The preanesthetic agent commonly used to block the vagal reflexes is
a. propranolol b. scopolamine c. glycopyrrolate d. digoxin

68. Ketamine is a
a. local anaestehtic b. general anaestehtic
c. inhalational anesthetic d. dissociative anaesthetic

69. The route of drug administration contraindicated in weak dehydrated patients is
a. intraperitoneal b. intramuscular c. subcutaneous d. oral

70. The plant rich in cyanogenic glycosides is
a. cotton plant b. lucerne c. tapioca d. poppy plant

71. Yohimbine HCl is indicated in the overdosage of
a. diazepam b. ketamine c. acepromazine d. detomidine

72. The analgesic indicated for nerve blocks during head injuries is
a. pethidine b. methimazole c. bupivacaine d.sodium salicyalte

73. Selegiline is a
a. monoamine oxidase inhibitor b. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
c. tricyclic antidepressant d. anticonvulsant

74. The antidote for nitrate toxicity in cattle is
a. methylene blue b. sodium thiosulphate
c. calcium disodium EDTA d. desferroxamine

75. Cobra venom is relatively rich in
a. phospholipase b. pseudocholinesterase
c. acetylcholinesterase d. thrombin like enzymes

76. The toxic principle present in castor bean is
a. gossypol b. abrin c. ricin d. sanguinin

77. An example for combination of agents inducing neurolept analgesia in animals is
a. droperidol and fentanyl citrate b. acepromazine and haloperidol
c. triflupromazine and fluanisone d. chlorpromazine and ketamine

78. The solid medicated preparations meant for introduction in to the vagina are termed as
a. suppositories b. poultice c. pessaries d. mucilages

79. The antiemetic agent preferred for controlling the chemotherapy induced nausea and 58
vomition is
a. domperidone b. buclizine c. granisetron d. Metoclopramide

80. The antiemetic agent preferred for controlling the motion sickness in animals is
a. promethazine b. pheneramine maleate
c. granisetron d. sodium bicarbonate

81. The antibacterial indiacated in the treatment of bacterial meningitis is
a. azithromycin b. lincomycin c. ceftizoxime d. gentamicin

82. The gastrokinetic agent indicated for relieving free gas bloat condition in ruminants
a. domperidone b. maropitant c. manganese sulphate d. metoclopramide

83. The effect of metformin is
a. increased blood glucose level b. increased insulin release
c. reduced insulin release d. reduced blood glucose levels

84. The mechanism of action of enrofloxacin involves
a. Inhibition of topoisomearse b. inhibition of xylose isomerase
c. inhibition of cell wall synthesis d. inhibition of protein synthesis

85. The antidote for propoxur toxicity is
a. pralidoxime b. atropine sulphate c. diacetyl monoxime d. thiamineHCl

86. The chemical constituent commonly found in the commercially available
mosquito repellants is
a. parathion b. allethrin c. amitraz d. bromadiolone

87. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of
a. ethacrynic acid b. spironolactone
c .chlorpheneramine maleate d. ranitidine

88. The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of sources of drugs is
a. pharmacy b. pharmacovigilance c. pharmacognosy d.posology

89. An example for the opioid analgesic with little effect on CNS is
a. meperidine b. etorphine c. tramadol d. pentazocine

90. The opioid compound used in combination with atropine sulphate in non infectious
diarrhea is
a. dicaetyl morphine b. pethidine c. loperamide d. diphenoxylate

91. Epinephrine is indicated in
a. hypertension b. allergy c. anaphylaxis d. asthma

92. GABA is the target for the action of
a. phenothiazinee b. levamisole c. selamectin d. closantel

93. Haemocoagulant among these is59
a. streptokinase b. dicoumarol c. ethamsylate d. Ferrous sulpahte

94. Oxalate rich plant among these is
a. Lantana camara b. Parthenium hysterophorus
c. Hypericum perforatum d. Beta vulgaris

95. Sui poisoning is caused by
a. Acacia leucophloea b. Abrus precatorius
c. Argemone mexicana d. Areca catechu

96. Epsom salt has the pharmacological action of
a. antidiarrhoeal b. bronchodilator c. purgative d. adsorbent

97. The antidote for diazepam overdosage is
a. adrenaline b. dexametahsone c. flumazenil d. sodium lactae

98. Urinary alkalisers are used during the therapy with
a. clindamycin hydrochloride b. tylosin hydrochloride
c. cefotaxime sodium d. sulfamethoxazoel

99. Lufenuron is effective against
a. adult flies b. immature ticks c. immature fleas d. adult mites

100. Antiarrythmic drug among the following is
a. amrinone b. lidocaine c. quinoronium d. primidone

101. The diuretic which acts by antagonizing aldosterone is
a. frusemide b. lamiloride c. spironolactone d. chlorothiazide

102. Vincristin sulphate is
a. an anticanerous antibiotic b. administered intramuscularly
c. cytotoxic drug d. an inhibitor of macrotubules

103. The topical agent of choice against Candida albicans is
a. sodium iodide b. caspofungin c. clotrimazole d. cotrimoxazole

104. An example of drug undergoing ‘acetylation’ bitransformation reaction
a. meloxicam b. Ampicillin c. paracetamol d. sulphadimidine

105. Dimercaptosuccinic acid is the chelating agent for
a. copper b. selenium c. iron d. lead

106. Milk of magnesia is
a. used to neutralize ingested acids b. Used to neutralize ingested alkalies
c. the detoxicant of choice for molybdenum toxicosis
d. used for arsenic toxciosis

107. The treatment of cyanide poisoning involves combination of
a. sodium nitrate and sodium sulfate 60
b. Calcim EDTA and sodium bicarbonate
c. sodium thiosulfate and hydroxycobalamine
d. sodium sulfate and sodium nitrite

108. Chocolates are toxic to dogs due to the presence of
a. aminophyllne b. terbutaline c. theobromine d. pheneramine

109. The currently veterinary approved nonsteroidal antiinflammtory drug in dogs is
a. celecoxib b. etodolac c. carprofen d. ketorolac

110. Cats are highly sensitive to the toxicity of
a. pyrethroids b. carbamates c. phenols d. macrolides

111. The teratogenic agent among these is
a. fenbendazole b. penicillin G c. ketoconazole d. levamisole
112.The antimicrobial action of one of the following antibiotics is described as ‘time
a. streptomycin b. Enrofloxacin c. amoxycillin d. gentamicin

113. 1 % W/V solution of ivermectin injection contains
a. 1g of ivermectin in 1 litre solution b. 1mg of ivermectin 100ml solution
c. 1 mg of ivermectin in 1 ml solution d. 0.001 g of ivermectin in 1 ml solution

114. The therapeutic value of Allium satium is as
a. antidiarrhoeal b. antibacterial c. purgative d. demulcent

115. An example for pharmacokinetic incompatibility is
a. fluroquinolones with penicillins b. aminoglycodsides with penicillin
c. chloramphenicol with barbiturates d. NSAIDS with macrolides

116. The semi solid preparation with treacle or jaggery as the base and are intended to be
Smeared on the back of the tongue or hard palate of animals are
a. elixirs b. boluses c. electuaries d. emulsions

117. The immunomodulatory anthelmintic among these is
a. morantel citrate b. levamisole hydrochloride
c. tetramisole d. moxidectin

118. Longest acting penicillin among these is
a. benzyl penicillin b. procaine penicillin
c. benzathine penicillin d. piperacillin

119. A potent microsomal enzyme inhibitor among these is
a. apramycin b. ciprofloxacin c. chloramphenicol d. azithromycin

120. 10 mg of crystalline standard benzyl penicillinG sodium is equal to
a. 1667 International units b. 16670 International units 61
c. 16.67 International units d. 166.7 International units

121. . One of the following is effective against liverflukes in ruminants
a. piperazine b. triclabendazole
c.niclosamide d. antimony potassium tartrate

122. ‘Universal antidote ‘ consists of of activated charcoal, magnesium oxide and
a. egg white b. milk c. tannins d. liquid paraffin

123. The toxicity of copper in animals is enhanced by the low dietary levels of
a. manganese b. iron c. magnesium d. molybdenum

124. Point out the correct statement
a. the toxicity of nitrate ion is more than that of the nitrite ion
b. soil deficient in phosphorous enhance nitrate intake by plants.
c. . sodium nitrate converts haemoglobin to methaemoglobin
d. diet rich in readily fermentable carbohydrates increases nitrite production in

125. Mottling and patchy loss of dentine appearance of teeth is observed due to toxicity of
a. copper b. zinc c. fluoride d. iron

126. The measure of margin of safety of a drug is obtained by
a. LD50/ ED 99 b. LD 1/ ED 99 c. ED50/ LD 50 d. LD50/ ED 50

127. First pass effect for most of the drugs occurs in
a. tongue b. intestines c. rectum d. oral mucosa

128. An example for ‘ lethal synthesis’; is the conversion of
a. codeine to morphine b. parathion to paraoxon
c. phenylbutazone to oxtphenbutazone d. vitamin K to vitamin K epoxide

129. Area under the curve (AUC) denotes the value of
a. volume of distribution of the drug b. bioavailability of the drug
c. half life of the drug d.maximum plasma concentration of the drug

130. Doxapram is a
a. analeptic agent b. antiepileptic drug c. muscle relaxant d. cataleptic agent

131. The drug preferred in the management of low cardiac output shock is
a. isoprenaline b. adrenaline c. nor adrenaline d. dobutamine

132. Non sedative antitussive among these is
a. codeine b. dihydrocodeine c. dextromethorphan d. diamorphine

133. The antiseptic with antifungal action is
a. benzoyl peroxide b. povidone iodine
c. Cetrimide d.potassium permanganate 62

134. Lindane toxicity is treated by the administration of
a. dimercaprol b. d-penicillamine c. phenobarbitone d. scopolamine

135. Antimycoplasmal antibiotic among these is
a. tiamulin b. doxycyline c. chloramphenicol d. vancomycin

136. The spectrum of antibacterial activity of first generation cephalosporins is primarily
a. gram negative anaerobes b. gram positive anaerobes
c. gram positive aerobes d. Mycobacterium spp.

137. Drug of choice for prevention of canine heart worm infestation is
a. piperazine b. milbemycine c. niclosamide d. praziquantel

138. A novel sodium channel blocker for use in dogs as a fleacide is
a. lufenuron b. metaflumizone c.gamma benzene hexachloride d. carbaryl

139. One of the following is an antihypertensive agent with vasodilator action
a. dopamine b. glyceryl trinitrate c. reserpine d. alpha methyl dopa

140. Glyceryl guaicolate is a
a. general anaestehtic b. peripheral l muscle relaxant
c.preanaesthetic d. narcotic analgesic

141. The pure antagonist for pethidine overdosage is
a. pentazocine b. naltrexone c. methadone d. etorphine

142. Injectable general anesthetic among these is
a. ketamine b. diazepam c. propofol d. acepromazine

143. Malignant hyperthermia condition in pigs may be observed with
a. ether b. enflurane c. halothane d. thiopentone

144. The adverse effect of anticancerous drugs is
a. constipation b. bleeding c. lameness d. convulsions

145. Topically used sulfonamide for ophthalmic infections is
a. sulfadiazine b. sulphathiazole c. sulphacetamide d. sulphapyridine

146. Third generation cephalosporin among these is
a. ceftiofur b. cefazolin c. cefadroxil d. ceefpime

147. The mechanism of action of benzimidazole class of anthelmintics is by
a. inhibition of glycolysis b.muscle hyperpolarisation
c. inhibition of fumarate reductase d. inhibition of phosphorylation

148. The coccidiocidal drug used in turkey is
a. clopidol b. diclazuril c. Salinomycin d. Enrofloxacin

149. Bitter almond smell of the gastrointestinal contents is observed in 63
a. phosphorous poisoning b. selenium poisoning
c. cyanide poisoning d. mercury poisoning

150. The action of 2- pralidoxime is to
a. inhibit the acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
b. activate the acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
c. inhibit acetylcholine breakdown
d. activate acetyl choline synthesis

151. The antidote for paracetomol toxicity in cats is
a)N- methylGlycine b) N-acetylcysteine
c) N-acetylmethionine d) N-methylguanine

152. Zearalenone is a:
a) Steroidal estrogenic b) phytoestrogen
c) Steroidal antiestrogen d) non -steroidal estrogenic

153. One of the following organochlorine is least soluble in body fat:
a) lindane b) DDT c) methoxychlor d) dieldrin

154. Coolie breeds of dogs are hypersensitive to
a) Albendazole b) Ivermectin c) Both d) None

155. Indian pharmacopoeia published every
a) 1 year b)2 years c) 5 years d) none

156. Drugs with very high abuse potential and cause severe psychic/ physical dependence in
humans classified under
a) Schedule I b) Schedule II c) Schedule III d) Schedule IV

157. Timed release preparations are called as
a) pills b) capsules c) spansules d) None

158. Example for specialized system of drug delivery
a) Adhesive patches b) liposomes c) dermojet d) all the above

159. G protein coupled receptors action is through the effector system of
a) adenylate cyclase b) phospholipase c c) Phospholipase A2 d) all the above

160. Down regulation of receptors is due to continuous exposure of
a) Antagonist b) agonist c) inverse agonist d) all the above

161. Receptors for which agonist binds, but unable to elicit pharmacological response are
a) Spare receptors b) orphan receptors c) silent receptors d) None

162. Minimum dose of a drug producing desired response is called
a) Ceiling dose b) threshold dose c) both a and b d) None

163. Arthus reaction seen in hypersensitivity of 64
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV

164. Potassium iodide is an example for the expectorant of
a) Reflex acting b) Direct acting c) Saline type d) None

165. Mucolytic expectorant preferred in equines is
a) bromhexine b) ambroxol c) dembrexine d) all

166. Example of nonopioid antitusssive is
a) codeine b) hydromorphine c) dextromethorphan d) none

167. Cats airways are susceptible to
a) Ach b) Histamine c) serotonin d) all

168. Cyproheptadine is
a) Histamine antagonist b) serotonin antagonist c) both a and b d) none

169. Misoprostol is an
a) PGE2 analogue b) PGE1 analogue c) PGF2 analogue d) none

170. Ephedrine is an example of agonist
a) α1 adrenoreceptors b) α 2 adrenoreceptors c) mixed type, both α and β d) None

1. a
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. a
6. b
7. b
8. a
9. d
10. c
11. d
12. a
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. c
17. b
18. b
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. c
23. a
24. b
25. b
26. b.
27. a
28. c
29. b
30. d
31. b
32. c
33. a
34. c
35. d
36. c
37. c
38. a
39. a
40. c
41. d
42. d
43. b
44. d
45. a
46. c
47. c
48. b
49. c
50. d
51. c
52. d
53. a
54. b
55. b
56. b
57. b
58. c
59. b
60. c
61. a
62. b
63. a
64. b
65. b
66. b
67. c
68. d
69. c
70. c
71. d
72. c
73. a
74. a
75. c
76. c
77. a
78. b
79. c
80. a
81. c
82. d
83. d
84. a
85. b
86. b
87. a
88. c
89. c
90. d
91. c
92. c
93. c
94. d
95. b
96. c
97. c
98. d
99. c
101. c
102. c
103. c
105. d
106. a
107. c
108. c
109. c
110. c
111. c
112. c
113. d
115. c
116. c
118. c
119. c
120. b
122. c
125. c
130. a
132. c
134. c
135. a
136. c
140. c
142. c
143. c
145. c
146. a
147. c
149. c
150. b
151. b
152. a
154. b
156. b
157. c
158. d
159. d
161. c
164. c
165. c
167. a
168. c
169. b
170. c

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